Distributions
A vector field defines a one-dimensional subspace of
at any point
with
: the subspace spanned by
. If
is everywhere nonzero, then it defines a one-dimensional subspace of each tangent space. A distribution generalizes this sort of thing to higher dimensions.
To this end, we define a -dimensional distribution
on an
-dimensional manifold
to be a map
, where
is a
-dimensional subspace of
. Further, we require that this map be “smooth”, in the sense that for any
there exists some neighborhood
of
and
vector fields
such that the vectors
span
for each
.
Notice here that the don’t have to work for the whole manifold
. Indeed, we will see that in many cases there are no everywhere-nonzero vector fields on a manifold
. But over a small patch
we might more easily find
vector fields that are linearly independent at each point, and thus define a smooth
-dimensional distribution over
. Then more general smooth distributions come from patching these sorts of smooth distributions together.
A vector field on
“belongs to” a distribution
— which we write
— if
for all
. We say that
is “integrable” if
for all
and
belonging to
.
Every one-dimensional manifold is integrable. To see this, we note that if and
belong to
then
for some constant
, at least at those points
where
. Thus we see that
and so is proportional to
, and thus belongs to
. To handle points where
, we can put the scalar multiplier on the other side.

I’m not understanding the last equation [fY,Y] = f[Y,Y] – (Y f)Y — could you elaborate?
Thanks!
Well, let’s work it out:
Now just use
for both
and
.
OK, I get it now, thanks.
I think my difficulty comes from confusion over when juxtaposition denotes multiplication in the ring, multiplication of the ring over the module, function application, function composition, or even something else. (I had similar difficulties with representation theory
In a term like “fXYg”, the empty spaces between the letters can mean different things depending on how it’s parenthesized; I still haven’t wrapped my head around whether all the different ways make sense and that (among the ones that do make sense — all of them?) they all mean the same thing.
[...] a -dimensional distribution on an -dimensional manifold , we say that a -dimensional submanifold is an “integral [...]
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It’s possible to fully-parenthesize these sorts of expressions, but then they get confusing for a different reason. In general, I try to write things out so they associate to the right, because of function application, and use parentheses for particularly ambiguous setups.
In
, we could write
, but we’ll conventionally drop the parens and write
for the application of the vector field to the function. There’s no way of “multiplying” vector fields, so
has to be interpreted as
. And it doesn’t matter whether we multiply
by
before applying it to
or after, since
and
give the same result.
[...] say that we have a one-dimensional distribution on a manifold . Around any point we can find a patch and an everywhere-nonzero vector field on [...]
Pingback by Integrable Distributions Have Integral Submanifolds « The Unapologetic Mathematician | June 30, 2011 |
[...] of the foliation. We also ask that the tangent spaces to the leaves define a -dimensional distribution on , which we say is “induced” by , and that any connected integral submanifold of [...]
Pingback by Foliations « The Unapologetic Mathematician | July 1, 2011 |